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25 important questions for CDS 2024 exam

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Important Questions CDS 2024

Important questions for CDS 2024 exam. Preparing for the Combined Defense Services (CDS) exam demands a strategic approach and a thorough understanding of the syllabus. With the CDS 2024 exam approaching, aspirants are gearing up to tackle the challenges and secure their dream career in the defense forces. To aid in your preparation, we’ve compiled a list of 25 important questions covering key topics across various sections of the CDS exam.

1) Which of the following statement is not correct?

a. The western ghats are relatively higher in the northern region.

b. The Anaimudi is the highest peak in the western ghats.

c. Tapi river lies in the south of Satpura.

d. The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valley.

2) With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statement is not correct.

a. The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499.

b. The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatnam.

c. In Eastern India, the English company opened their first factory in Orissa in 1633

d. Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746.

3) Who was the viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act was passed.

a. Lord Irwin

b. Lord Reading

c. Lord Chelmsford

d. Lord Wavell

4) Consider the following statements:

(1) Dr Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of the peasants.

(2) Acharya J.B Kriplani was one of the Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his Champaran investigation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

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5) The phrase “Equality before law” used in Article-14 of Indian constitution has been borrowed from?

a. USA

b. Germany

c. Britain

d. Greece

6) Which was described by Dr B.R Ambedkar as the “Heart and soul” of the constitution?

a. Right to equality

b. Right against exploitation

c. Right to constitutional remedies

d. Right to freedom of religion

7) Raja Sabha enjoys more powers than the Low Sabha in the case of

a. Money Bill

b. Non-money bill

c. Amendment of the constitution

d. Setting up of new All India Services

8) In India, inflation is measured by the

a. Wholesale price index number

b. Consumers price index for urban non manual workers

c. Consumers price index for agricultural workers

d. National income deflation

9) Gresham’s Law means

a. Good money replaces bad money in circulation

b. Bad money replaces good money in circulation

c. Good money promotes bad money in the system

d. Bad money promotes good money in the system

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10) The upper layer of atmosphere ozone is formed by

a. the action of UV rays on oxygen

b. the combination of oxygen molecules

c. subjecting oxygen to high pressure

d. the action of nitrogen on oxygen in atmosphere

11) The lustre of the metals is because of

a. High density, due to closed packing of atoms

b. high polish

c. reflection of light due to presence of free electrons

d. Absorption of light due to the presence of cavities

12) A hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of

a. controlled fission reaction

b. uncontrolled fission reaction

c. controlled fusion reaction

d. uncontrolled fusion reaction

13) A man is sitting in a boat which is floating in pond. If the man drinks some water from the pond, the level of water in the pond will

a. rise a little

b. fall a little

c. remain stationary

d. none of these

14) The cloudy nights are warmer than the clear nights because

a. clouds prevent escape of radiation of heat from the ground and the air.

b. absorb sunlight in the day and radiate the same in night.

c. clouds make the atmosphere damp and generate heat.

d. Clouds obstruct the movement of air which creates heat.

15) Assertion (A) : The weight of a body decreases with the increase of altitude on earth.

Reason (R) : The earth is not a perfect sphere.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true and R is the not the correct explanation of A.

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true.

16. The source of oxygen generated during photosynthesis is

a. water

b. carbon dioxide

c. chlorophyll

d. mesophyll cells

17. Rickets is the deficiency disease of vitamin D, in which the affected part is

a. skin

b. hair

c. bone

d. blood

18) In the earths atmosphere, the atmospheric pressure

a. increases with height

b. decreases with height

c. remains constant with height

d. first increase and then decrease with height

19) Israel has common borders with

a. Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt

b. Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Turkey

c. Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt

d. Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen

20) Under normal conditions, which one of the following are the correct sequential developments of features made by fluvial action

a. Waterfalls – Meander bars – River terraces – Oxbow lakes

b. Meander bars – River terraces – Waterfalls – Oxbow lakes

c. Waterfalls – River terraces – Meander bars – Oxbow lakes

d. River terraces – Meander bars – Waterfalls – Oxbow lakes

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21) Which one of the following four vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells.

a. Rigveda

b. Yajurveda

c. Samaveda

d. Atharvaveda

22) Gandhara school of art came into existence in

a. Hinayana sect

b. Mahayana sect

c. Vaishnava sect

d. Shaiva sect

23) Who among the following also had the name “Devanama Piyadassi”?

a. Ashoka

b. Chandragupta Maurya

c. Gautam Buddha

d. Mahavir

24) The word “Satyamev Jayate” in the state emblem of India is taken from

a. Upanishads

b. Sama Veda

c. Rog Veda

d. Ramayan

25. Which one of the following writs is issued by an appropriate judicial body in order to free a person who has been legally detained.

a. Quo warranto

b. Mandamus

c. Certiorari

d. Habeas corpus

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Must Have Book For Competitive Exams

Introducing “5000+ Most Expected MCQs” – the ultimate reference book for CDS aspirants seeking additional practice questions to sharpen their skills and boost their confidence. With a vast collection of meticulously curated multiple-choice questions covering all major subjects and topics relevant to the CDS exam, this book serves as an invaluable resource for thorough preparation.

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